You are a hedge fund manager that sells short out-of-the-money puts and purchases out-of-the-money long puts. Your aim is to generate premium. In such a scenario, then, would it be appropriate to sell more out-of-the-money puts than purchasing out-of-the-money puts closer to the underlying cash price. ? Generally speaking the short puts with the higher preVerify that is correct and provide any feedback. Which put expiration dates combined between all the sold at-the-money puts and out-of-the-money acheive the most profitable position whereas long puts expire worthless less the value collected from short put premiums? For example, UVXY will predominately trend downwards because constant volatility is unsustainable long-term. If UVXY is currently at 16.00 per share, then would you suggest selling at-the-money long-term puts at 16 and buying out-of-the-money 5 puts , both with the same expiration dates ? In theory, as the higher possibility that UVXY declines
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