Hello Traders, if we'll measure 1676-1916 ample as 1st Ample after (C) correction, then what could we expect for optimal (1,*3*,5) third wave. Here I've tried to illustrate it.
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The information and publications are not meant to be, and do not constitute, financial, investment, trading, or other types of advice or recommendations supplied or endorsed by TradingView. Read more in the Terms of Use.